Federal IT Security Professional (FITSP) Operator Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• A digital signature provides which combination of properties?
• In the RMF, which step focuses on establishing context and resources for risk management?
• Which publication addresses IT Security Engineering Principles?
• What term describes the maximum system downtime tolerable?
• Which term is paired with 'Real-time assessment of security'?
• Which term is used to describe the expiry, revocation, or suspension of a digital certificate?
• Which policy governs the management of federal information resources, including security and privacy guidelines?
• Which concept ensures accountability and integrity in communication?
• To obtain guidance on security for mobile devices in enterprise environments, which SP should be consulted?
• Which framework emphasizes policies and schedules to ensure compliance?
• Which VPN types are described as Client-to-Site, Site-to-Site, and Clientless (SSL VPN)?
• NIST SP 800-53A defines adequate security and reporting requirements. Which document defines these requirements?
• Which SP addresses encryption for storage devices?
• Which function sets IT policy and reporting schedules?
• Recovery Point Objective refers to the acceptable data loss in case of an incident.
• Which RMF element includes the artifacts used during the authorization decision process?
• Which publication addresses media sanitization methods including clearing, purging, and destruction?
• Which SP provides guidelines specifically for National Security Systems?
• Which principle states that users should only access what they need for their role?
• Which technology ensures integrity and authenticity in communications?
• What is the primary purpose of a Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?
• Which control uses application-layer techniques to inspect traffic for threats?
• Which document provides guidance on incident handling lifecycles?
• Which publication provides methods for assessing the effectiveness of security controls?
• Recovery Time Objective is defined as the maximum time to restore operations.
• Which framework is designed to address cybersecurity workforce knowledge, skills, and tasks?
• Which document focuses on digital identity guidelines for federal IT?
• Which group is responsible for setting IT policy and reporting schedules?
• Which activity is aimed at ensuring continuity of operations after a security incident?
• Which term is used to detect changes to data integrity?
• Which mechanism is used to provide ongoing risk assessments and status updates?
• Malicious code that attaches to a host file.
• SP 800-53A Methods relate to which topic?
• Which standard updates cryptographic module standards to meet security requirements, including cloud considerations?
• Which term refers to a high-cost disaster recovery site with pre-installed equipment for rapid recovery?
• SP 800-128 discusses Cryptographic Algorithms for PIV. Which credential is the focus?
• SP 800-40 focuses on which topic?
• Continuous Monitoring is best described as which activity?
• Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) is described in which SP?
• Which term ensures encryption and integrity for IP packets?
• What is the stated purpose of the NICE Framework?
• Which statement correctly describes symmetric encryption?
• IT Security Engineering Principles are described in which publication?
• Media Disposal involves which type of assessment?
• Managing Security for Mobile Devices in Enterprises is covered by which SP?
• Which SP standard defines media sanitization with stages such as clearing, purging, and destruction?
• Federal Enterprise Architecture (FEA) is best described as what?
• Which trio constitutes the CIA Triad?
• What is a primary role of digital certificates in secure communications?
• Which OSI layer is associated with packet filtering in the context provided?
• RSA is an example of which type of encryption?
• Which VPN mode encrypts the entire packet including the header?
• OMB A-130 Security Plan pertains to which document?
• Hybrid encryption combines what to achieve security and efficiency?
• Hybrid Encryption involves which lifecycle activities?
• Cloud security and privacy guidelines are updated in which standard?
• Which SP provides guidance specifically for risk assessments within the RMF?
• Which approach uses a public and private key pair to enable secure communications?
• Which publication covers remote access security guidelines?
• Which standard is used to certify cloud security for government workloads?
• What are the core functions of the NIST Cybersecurity Framework?
• Which cryptographic approach uses asymmetric encryption for secure communications?
• Which act focuses on strengthening public health and medical preparedness in the United States?
• Access control, encryption, auditing are part of which control category?
• Which standard is associated with Personal Identity Verification for federal employees?
• Malware Prevention and Handling Guide is published as which SP?
• Which focuses on log management and analysis?
• The item CA, Certificate Revocation List, Key Escrow corresponds to which component?
• In the CSF, which two core functions address monitoring and handling incidents after detection?
• Which algorithms are listed as encryption algorithms in the material?
• Which steps comprise detecting, responding, recovering, and preventing incidents?
• Which trio is commonly identified in continuity planning?
• RMF Authorization Roles include which three roles?
• Which item corresponds to the management control family?
• What term describes ignoring or dismissing the existence of a risk?
• Which SP would be the primary reference for contingency planning for federal IT systems?
• The Update to Cryptographic Module Standards corresponds to which standard?
• HSPD-20 provides Configuration Management Guidelines. Which term best describes these guidelines?
• Which publication is the Guide to Storage Encryption associated with?
• RPO stands for which?
• Which NIST Special Publication defines the National Checklist Program for security configurations?
• Which principle reduces the risk of fraud or error?
• Which metrics explain RTO, RPO, and MTD?
• Which standard is associated with Developing System Security Plans?
• Which disaster recovery option is fully equipped and ready to take over operations quickly?
• In the material, HSPD-8 is linked to which database?
• Which Act assigned NIST to develop IT security standards?
• SP 800-113 includes which artifacts?
• SP 800-53 Families provide guidelines for which area?
• Which document focuses on National Continuity of Operations?
• Security Log Management combines which cryptographic techniques?
• SP 800-94 concentrates on which area?
• Which type of malware self-replicates to spread across networks?
• FIPS 199 defines the security categorization of information systems.
• Which entity is responsible for managing and validating shared controls?
• SP 800-34 Planning is recommended by SP 800-92.
• OSI Layer 7 corresponds to which function?
• Which publication is associated with Management, Technical, and Operational controls?
• Which RMF artifact includes Systems Security Plan, Security Assessment Report, and Plan of Actions and Milestones?
• Which term is primarily used to manage public-key encryption and trust in a PKI?
• Which NIST SP publication provides testing methods for security controls?
• Which schedule covers annual and quarterly reports to the OMB?
• Which type of threat is commonly detected using HIDS or behavior-based systems?
• NVD stands for what?
• AES is an example of which type of encryption?
• Which system detects intrusions but does not automatically block them?
• Which process comprises the steps Prepare, Categorize, Select, Implement, Assess, Authorize, and Monitor?
• Which term corresponds to the standard that defines AES?
• Which term represents short-term federal IT policies and guidelines?
• What subsystem is activated during specific operations?
• Secure system engineering best practices are described in which publication?
• Which term refers to malicious software disguised as legitimate to deceive users?
• Which attribute of the CIA Triad ensures information is available to authorized users when needed?
• Malicious software disguised as legitimate.
• Which concept outlines steps to detect, respond, recover, and prevent incidents?
• Which area is primarily concerned with safeguarding cryptographic keys?
• Which three categories are used to classify management, technical, and operational controls?
• PKC stands for which cryptographic concept?
• Which publication provides guidelines for identifying National Security Systems?
• SP 800-34 Planning is recommended in SP 800-92.
• Which document provides guidelines for firewall management?
• HSPD-7 is associated with which guide?
• The Interview, Examine, Test approach is a method used for what activity?
• SP 800-144 is associated with which concept?
• Which publication provides Guidelines for Configuration Management?
• In the RMF, which step occurs last to ensure continuous monitoring?
• Which standard defines security categorization based on impact levels for Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability?
• Which standard is linked to PIV credentials for federal employees?
• Which publication is the Technical Guide to Security Testing?
• Which category includes Packet Filtering, Stateful, and Application Firewalls?
• What are the impact levels defined by FIPS 199?
• Which practice focuses on protecting storage by managing encryption keys?
• Which malware type masquerades as legitimate software to trick users?
• Which policy is associated with establishing a Patch Management Program?
• Which area is described as combining symmetric and asymmetric cryptographic techniques?
• Which NIST CSF core function focuses on understanding the business context, assets, and risk?
• What is the primary purpose of Digital Certificates?
• Which publication is identified as the risk management framework document commonly referenced for federal IT security?
• RMF Prepare Step Activities describe methods to assess which of the following?
• Security Content Automation Protocol is commonly referred to by which acronym?
• Which SP would you reference for guidance on security in public cloud environments?
• What do Layer 7 firewalls inspect?
• Which technology uses IPsec to provide secure communications?
• Which item is defined by x.509 standards?
• Which concept includes system-specific, hybrid, and common controls?
• SP 800-88 provides guidance on which topic?
• Which of the following is listed among government encryption standards?
• Which document defines the overall risk management framework (FARM - Frame, Assess, Respond, Monitor)?
• Which program is specifically designed to standardize cloud security for government?
• Which tool category is designed to analyze security incidents in real-time?
• SP 800-63 encourages agencies to use architecture frameworks?
• Which term provides data integrity and authentication?
• Malicious software providing unauthorized administrative access.
• Which publication provides minimum security requirements for federal information systems?
• Which RMF activity focuses on maintaining system security after authorization?
• Encryption Standards (Government) include which algorithms?
• Which standard provides a common identification credential for federal employees and contractors?
• Which statement best describes symmetric encryption?
• Which term is the Keyed Hash Message Authentication Code designed for data integrity?
• IDS detects intrusions; IPS prevents intrusions. Which term best describes this comparison?
• Which document defines the minimum security controls baseline for federal information systems?
• Security Log Management is defined by which publication?
• SP 800-51 is described as the Vulnerability Naming Guide.
• Which property best describes asymmetric encryption?
• What mechanism uses a sender's private key to ensure non-repudiation and integrity of a message?
• Real-time risk assessments and updates are provided by what?
• Which statement correctly describes IDS vs IPS?
• FIPS 198-1 is associated with which guidelines?
• Which metrics are used to define business continuity tolerances?
• SP 800-78 addresses Major Applications and General Support Systems (GSS). Which document corresponds?
• Which topic deals with securing network traffic across sites using IPsec?
• What is the purpose of the Plan of Actions and Milestones (POA&M) in RMF?
• HMAC is described as which type of function?
• Which guideline addresses encryption for storage devices?
• PIV cards for federal employees are defined by which standard?
• What is the term for the process of managing cryptographic keys?
• Which tools enable automated security checks?
• FIPS 199 impact levels are used in which RMF step?
• Which component includes CA, CRL, and Key Escrow?
• What does HMAC stand for?
• Analyze security alerts in real-time is a capability provided by which tools?
• Which metrics set commonly includes MFA, encryption, and incident response rates?
• FIPS 140-3 updates address which area?
• What is the purpose of continuous monitoring in RMF?
• Security policies and A&A processes belong to which control family?
• Which IPSec component provides data integrity and authentication without encrypting payload?
• SP 800-27 Principles includes which areas?
• Using HIDS or behavioral-based detection for suspicious activity.
• Which two system types are named in the OMB Circular A-130 Categories?
• Which standard defines the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)?
• Which Act established CIOs and Capital Planning Investment Control?
• Which database tracks public vulnerabilities?
• SP 800-51 is best described as the Vulnerability Naming Guide.
• The concept described as combining common and system-specific controls is called what?
• Security in Public Cloud Computing is described in which SP?
• Which concept is described by the phases Detect, Respond, Recover, and Prevent in the security lifecycle?
• Techniques for clearing, purging, and destroying data are called what?
• Which RMF activity is described as the ongoing security assessment program, often aligned with cloud considerations?
• What does FARM stand for in risk management?
• FIPS 200 outlines what?
• Which concept provides consistency in vulnerability checks?
• FIPS 181 standards are associated with which security practice?
• Which NIST Special Publication provides guidelines for securing email systems?
• Contingency Planning for Federal IT Systems is described in which SP?
• Asset identification and boundary establishment are components of which overarching concept in the FARM framework?
• Which approach combines common and system-specific controls?
• Which component deals with digital certificates and trust via CA, CRL, and key escrow?
• Which RMF concept is associated with using FIPS 199 to categorize information systems?
• Which SP is associated with the RMF Authorization Roles in describing the roles involved in authorization?
• Which publication addresses disposal methods for media, including clearing and purging?
• What is the Common Identification Standard for Federal Employees?
• OMB A-130 defines categories for information systems. Which domain is described by these categories?
• Which are common encryption key types?
• Which item lists Certificate Revocation List and Key Escrow?
• Which CSF core function is primarily focused on detecting cybersecurity events?
• Which framework focuses on contingency planning?
• Which act focuses on expanding electronic government initiatives in the United States?
• Which term refers to converting plaintext into ciphertext for confidentiality?
• In RMF, what is the Security Assessment Report (SAR) used for?
• Which SP publication provides guidance for protecting the confidentiality of Personally Identifiable Information?
• Which term describes the use of certificates issued by a trusted authority to verify identities?
• Which Act included FISMA to strengthen federal IT security?
• Which standard is known for digital identity guidelines covering identity proofing and authentication?
• Which act established the role of the CIO and CPIC processes in federal IT management?
• Which statement correctly distinguishes symmetric and asymmetric encryption?
• SP 800-78 covers Major Applications and General Support Systems (GSS). Which document is this?
• Which publication is associated with control families used to structure security controls?
• What term describes proactively eliminating risk by avoiding related activities?
• Which publication would you use to automate the validation of security configurations across systems?
• SP 800-34 is linked with which topic?
• Which term describes the minimum security requirements for federal information systems?
• Which of the following is a primary advantage of public key cryptography?
• SP 800-53A focuses on which assessment type?
• RTO stands for which?
• OMB A-130 Policy Scope is described as ensuring trust using what?
• Which baseline concept is defined by FIPS 200?
• Which area covers the governance and management of federal information security programs?
• Which standard includes basic to advanced cryptographic protections?
• Which term describes the possibility that a digital certificate may expire, be revoked, or be suspended?
• Which schedule governs annual and quarterly reports to the OMB?
• Which publication provides governance guidance for managers on information security?
• SP 800-128 addresses Cryptographic Algorithms for the PIV card. Which credential is implicated?
• Which type of encryption is typically used for bulk data due to its speed?
• Which act requires federal agencies to establish a security program with annual reporting?
• Which term refers to a formal set of measurements and oversight for information security in federal programs?
• Which term describes the maximum tolerable data loss in an incident?
• Expanded electronic government initiatives are associated with which act?
• The item that encompasses access control, encryption, and auditing is categorized under which control type?
• Which term is the standard that defines the AES algorithm?
• Which component includes likelihood and impact of a threat?
• Which term is a keyed hash function used to authenticate messages?
• What term describes a low-cost disaster recovery site with no pre-installed equipment?
• Which Act requires protection of PII and requires a valid reason for collection and retention?
• Which standard covers cryptographic module standards?
• Which item is tied to Risk Assessment Factors?
• FISMA reporting requires which type of reports?
• Which SP provides the guide for conducting risk assessments?
• Which act enhances information sharing across sectors?
• OMB Circular vs Memorandum addresses contingency strategies for IT systems.
• SP 800-63 provides guidelines for which domain?
• SP 800-64 addresses which focus area?
• Which risk management approach eliminates risk by avoiding the activity?
• Which term describes the framework for managing public-key encryption?
• In RMF Step 1, which artifacts are typically updated?
• Which term focuses on cybersecurity education and workforce development?
• Fully equipped disaster recovery sites are called what?
• Inspects and filters traffic at the application layer.
• In RMF, which element is associated with assessing ongoing system security?
• Which standard addresses clearing, purging, and destroying media?
• Which document includes SSP, SAR, POA&M?
• The Information Security Handbook for Managers is primarily intended for which audience?
• Self-propagating malicious code.
• FIPS 201 standard is associated with which identity framework?
• Which SP publication addresses clearing, purging, and destroying media?
• Which process includes planning to assess, respond to, and recover from incidents?
• Which focus area addresses national preparedness and risk reduction?
• Which program is described as the program for security assessment of cloud service providers?
• The terms 'Impact and likelihood' relate to which assessment factors?
• Which document provides a catalog of security and privacy controls for federal information systems?
• NIST FIPS documents typically provide guidance that is which type?
• Which resource enables automated checks against known vulnerabilities?
• FARM stands for which four phases?
• The notation M-YY-## (e.g., M-14-03) is an example of which document formatting?
• Which risk management strategy involves avoiding activities that may introduce risk?
• Guidelines for firewall management are described in which SP document?
• Which algorithm is a classic example of asymmetric encryption?
• Used in disaster recovery; low-cost, slow to restore.
• Which SP aligns education and training for cybersecurity roles?
• Major Application, General Support System is categorized under which document?
• Which layers are listed as BIA components?
• Which term provides authentication or trust via x.509 standards?
• Physical security and environmental controls are part of which control family?
• FARM is an acronym for Frame, Assess, Respond, Monitor. Which term describes this risk management framework?
• PKI Authentication is best described as which concept?
• Real-time event monitoring and security management are provided by which type of tools?
• Real-time logging and correlation of security events are primarily provided by which category of tools?
• Which term describes malware designed to hide its presence and actions on a system?
• EAL Levels (FIPS) map to which national objective?
• Which concept represents the ongoing process of identifying, assessing, and managing risk throughout the system lifecycle?
• Which term is associated with preventing denial of involvement in a transaction?